Any freshman will know that integral of (1/x) between 0 and 1 doesn’t converge. But integral of (1/x^2) between 0 and 1 does converge.But WHY ? Questions often , even as simple as this , are not given time and the outcome is - we spend most of our lives on answering somebody else’s questions rather than posing questions.

A particularly nice way of looking at this convergence cropped up when Anupam gave this insight, while discussing Fourier Transforms. This is a popular technique , a 10,000 ft view of this technique is this : It reduces the tails so that you can calculate the integral easily.That is exactly the reason why (1/x^2) converges …we are reducing the tail area! ..Wow!! never ever thought about it in this way!!

Sometimes I have this feeling that I should spend my entire life in math…But I guess one has to afterall, reconcile to “Sex and Cash Theory "